Orthopaedic MCQs: Basic sciences and Anatomy Set 1

In this post, we present you a list of 25 orthopaedic MCQs. These are actually regarding basic sciences and anatomy

Question 1: What are the four joints that have intra-articular components to the metaphysis?

a. Shoulder, ankle,wrist and hip

b. Hip, elbow, shoulder and ankle

c. Knee, hip, elbow and ankle

d. Knee, wrist, elbow and ankle


Correct answer is “b”. Explanation

Question 2: Which of the following nerve palsy is responsible for positive Trendelenburg test 

a. Inferior gluteal nerve

b. Superior gluteal nerve

c. Pudendal nerve

d. Obturator nerve


Correct answer is ‘b’. Trendelenburg test is positive due to the paralysis of abductors, chiefly gluteus medius. The latter is supplied by superior gluteal nerve

Question 3: Mobile wad of Henry consists of all except

a. Brachioradialis

b. Extensor carpi radialis longus

c. Abductor pollicis longus

d. Extensor carpi radialis brevis


The correct answer is ‘c’. Mobile wad of Henry consists of brachioradialis, ECRL and ECRB

Question 4: Which of the following structures will be compressed in quadrilateral space syndrome?

a. Axillary nerve

b. Radial nerve

c. Profunda brachii artery

d. Circumflex scapular artery


The correct answer is “a”.  Explanation

Question 5: Which of the following spinal cord tracts carries light touch sensation?

a. Ventral corticospinal tract

b. Lateral spinothalamic tract

c. Dorsal column

d. Anterior spinothalamic tract


The correct answer is “d”

Anterior or ventral spinothalamic tract perceive light touch and pressure. Lateral spinothalamic tract transmit pain, temperature and crude touch sensations. The anterior or ventral corticospinal tract transmit motor impulses. Dorsal column transmit fine touch, vibration, two-point discrimination, and proprioception (position) from the skin and joints. There is a difference between fine touch and light touch

Question 6: Nerve entrapment at spinoglenoid notch can lead to entrapment of which muscle?

a. Supraspinatus

b. Infraspinatus

c. Teres Minor

d. Subscapularis


The correct answer is “b”. 

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve (SSN) at the spinoglenoid notch (SGN) specifically affects the infraspinatus, and isolated external rotation (ER) weakness can result. The spinoglenoid notch, also known as the supraglenoid notch serves as the connection between supra- and infra-spinatus fossae. Suprascapular artery and nerve pass through this notch. In supraglenoid notch, only the distal part of suprascapular nerve is affected. Hence, there is injury only to infraspinatus, thus sparing supraspinatus.

Question 7: In Salter Harris Type I fracture, injury typically occurs through which zone of the physis? 

a. Reserve Zone

b. Proliferative Zone

c. Zone of maturation

d. Zone of provisional calcification


Correct answer is ‘d‘.

Question 8: Articular cartilage is tensile because of

a. Fibronectin

b. Glycosaminoglycans

c. Collagen

d. Chondrocytes


Correct answer is ‘c‘.

Question 9: In Froment’s sign, the action of which of the following muscle is unopposed.

a. Adductor pollicis

b. Flexor pollicis longus

c. Flexor carpi ulnaris

d. Opponens pollicis


Correct answer is ‘b‘. Due to ulnar nerve palsy, the adductor pollicis is paralyzed. Thus, while performing Froment’s sign, there is flexion of the thumb interphalangeal joint, mediated by the flexor pollicis longus (FPL). The anterior interosseous nerve, supplies the FPL

Question 10: What kind of muscle contraction is there, when someone curls his or her biceps using free weights ?

a. Isometric

b. Isotonic

c. Isokinetic

d. Plyometrics


Correct answer is ‘b‘.

Question 11: What is the genetic mutation in osteogenesis imperfecta? 

a. Fibroblast growth receptor 3 (FGFR3)

b. Type 1 collagen

c. COMP (Cartilage Oligometric matrix protein)

b. Fibrillin


Correct answer is ‘b‘.  Osteogenesis imperfecta has variable inheritance pattern due to mutation in type 1 collagen affected by COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes. FGFR3 mutation is present in achondroplasia which is the most common inherited skeletal dysplasia.

Similarly, COMP is mutated in autosomal dominant form of Multiple Epiphyseal Dysplasia and  pseudoachondroplasia

In Marfan’s Syndrome, there is mutation in fibrillin

Question 12: Bone within bone is seen in which of the following disease?

a. Paget’s disease

b. Osteopetrosis

c. Rickets

d. Scurvy


The correct answer is ‘b’. Osteopetrosis  or ALBERS–SCHÖNBERG DISEASE is a disease characterized by defective osteoclastic resorption of bone. Hence, abnormal deposition of bone in various sites lead to the term ‘bone within bone’ or marble bone disease.

Paget’s disease is characterized by abnormal bone remodelling in people over age of 50 years. Due to this process, thickened and brtille bones are produces. Osteoporosis circumscripta is a feature of this disease

Question 13: What would you expect the result of nerve conduction study in myopathy 

a. Increased latency and normal conduction velocity

b. Increased latency and increased conduction velocity

c. Normal latency and increased conduction velocity

d. Normal latency and normal conduction velocity


The correct answer is ‘D’ 

Question 14: What is the normal appearance of meniscus in MRI? 

a. Bright in T1, bright in T2

b. Dark in T1, bright in T2

c. Dark in T1 and Dark in T2

d. Bright in T1, dark in T2


The correct answer is “C”. Meniscus appear dark in both T1 and T2 weighed sequences

Question 15: At which point, the material begins to undergo plastic deformation 

a. Ultimate strength

b. Yield point

c. Fatigue strength

d. Endurance limit


The correct answer is “B”. Yield point or proportional limit in the stress strain curve is the point where elastic deformation converts into the plastic deformation

stress strain curve mcqs

Question 16: During the screw home mechanism of the knee which of the following takes place 

a. Femur internally rotates and tibia externally rotates

b. Femur externally rotates and tibia internally rotates

c. Femur and tibia internally rotate

d. Femur and tibia externally rotate


The correct answer is “A”. During the open kinetic chain, and during last 20 degrees of extension, the tibia externally rotates. Similarly during the closed kinetic chain during the last 20 degrees of extension, the femur internally rotates over the fixed tibia. This is the screw home mechanism

Question 17: Knot of Henry is the connection between 

a. Flexor hallucis longus and Flexor hallucis brevis

b. Flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus

c. Flexor hallucis longus and Extensor hallucis longus

d. Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis


The correct answer is “b”. The Knot of Henry represents an anatomical crossover between flexor digitorum longus and flexor hallucis longus. This area is prone to intersection syndrome due to tendinosis.

Question 18: Which of the following nerves is most commonly involved while obtaining a bone graft from posterior ilium? 

a. Lateral femoral cutaneous

b. Cluneal

c. L5 nerve root

d. Superior gluteal


The correct answer is “B“. Cluneal nerves are most commonly involved while taking a bone graft from posterior ilium.

Question 19: Lisfranc amputation is done through which level? 

a. Metatarsals

b. Subtalar joint

c. Ankle joint

d. Tarsometatarsal joints


The correct answer is “D”. Check this image

amputation foot

Lisfranc amputation is at the level of tarsometatarsal joints. Chopart amputation is at the transverse tarsal joints. Syme amputation is at the level of ankle joint

Question 20: Which of the following organism is most commonly isolated in acute necrotizing fascitis? 

a. Group B streptococcus

b. Staphylococcus aureus

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d. Group A Stretpcoccus


The correct answer is “D

Question 21: The most important static stabilizer of shoulder is 

a. Superior glenohumeral ligament

b. Inferior glenohumeral ligament

c. Inferior glenohumeral ligament

d. Rotator cuff muscles


The correct answer is B. Inferior glenohumeral ligament complex is the most important static stabilizer of the shoulder. It prevents anterior and inferior dislocation through anterior band and prevents posterior dislocation through posterior band.

Question 22: The Lisfranc ligament connects 

a. Medial cuneiform to base of second metatarsal at dorsal surface

b. Medial cuneiform to base of second metatarsal on plantar surface

c. Intermediate cuneiform to base of second cuneiform on dorsal surface

d. Lateral cuneiform to base of first metatarsal on plantar surface.


The correct answer is B. The Lisfranc ligament connects medial cuneiform to base of second metatarsal on plantar surface.

Question 23: Test which is positive in ankylosing spondylitis is ? 

a. Rheumatoid Factor

b. HLA B-27

c. HLA DR-4

HLA DR – 2


HLA B-27 is positive in about 95% of ankylosing spondylitis

Question 24: Slip in SCFE (slipped capital femoral epiphysis) occurs through which zone of physis 

a. Proliferative

b. Reserve

c. Hypertrophic

d. Metaphyseal spongiosa


The correct answer is “C”. SCFE (slipped capital femoral epiphysis)  is a disorder of the hip in which the femoral neck displaces anteriorly and superiorly relative to the femoral epiphysis. Slippage through hypertrophic zone of the growth plate.

However, in SCFE due to renal failure, slipping occurs through metaphyseal spongiosa

Question 25: Vitamin required for collagen synthesis is

a. Vitamin A

b. Vitamin B

c. vitamin C

d. vitamin E


The correct answer is “C”.

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